도비 Avaya 7003-1 시험

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시험 번호/코드: 7003-1
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam)
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Q&A: 65 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with
eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive
Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099).
Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customer ¯ s r equi r e ment s?
A. 2001-2008
B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
Answer: D

Avaya   7003-1   7003-1최신덤프   7003-1시험문제

NO.2 A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T
and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid
network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host?
(Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
Answer: B,C

Avaya자료   7003-1최신덤프   7003-1자격증

NO.3 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the
system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller
card with one high density DSP daughter board.
How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D

Avaya   7003-1   7003-1   7003-1

NO.4 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has
been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department.
The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not
transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

Avaya   7003-1   7003-1   7003-1덤프   7003-1

NO.5 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the
primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has
been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security
domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.
With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware
platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D

Avaya pdf   7003-1시험문제   7003-1   7003-1

NO.6 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution.
They plan to have the system support 50,000 users.
Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D

Avaya dump   7003-1   7003-1   7003-1

NO.7 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya
Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that
the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed.
What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots.
D. The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
Answer: B

Avaya기출문제   7003-1   7003-1인증   7003-1최신덤프

NO.8 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to
register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while
Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can
ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking
issue.
Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call
server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

Avaya   7003-1   7003-1 dumps   7003-1 dump

NO.9 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your
customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
Answer: C

Avaya덤프   7003-1최신덤프   7003-1자료

NO.10 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three
Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories.
A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the
node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is
selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be
transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be
transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be
transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred
from Element manager to CallServer.
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: 6102-1
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Implementation Exam)
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Q&A: 67 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Which two management ports are available on the CP module? (Choose two.)
A. Serial interface
B. USB (host) interface
C. Ethernet interface
D. Modem interface
Answer: A,D

Avaya   6102-1   6102-1인증   6102-1   6102-1   6102-1덤프

NO.2 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

Avaya   6102-1 pdf   6102-1최신덤프   6102-1 dump   6102-1기출문제

NO.3 Given the following ACL applied to an interface:
filter acl ace 1 5 name "xxxx" filter acl ace action 1 5 deny
filter acl ace ip 1 5 ip-protocol-type eq tcp
filter acl ace protocol 1 5 dst-port eq 23
filter acl ace 1 5 enable
What is the result of this filter?
A. permit telnet traffic
B. deny ftp traffic
C. permit only tcp traffic
D. deny telnet traffic
E. deny only tcp traffic
Answer: D

Avaya덤프   6102-1최신덤프   6102-1 dump

NO.4 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in
the existing
Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 core. The technician needs to configure VRF on the
VSP 9000.
Which statement represents the proper order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Create a new VLAN, add an IP address, create a VRF, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
B. Create a VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
C. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
D. Create VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, and add an IP
address.
Answer: D

Avaya시험문제   6102-1   6102-1   6102-1   6102-1자료

NO.5 A Split Multi Link Trunking (SMIT) for switch clustering is being configured.
Which statement is a configuration requirement for the SMIT?
A. The CP-Limit is configured on edge switch stacks.
B. VLANs that are defined on the SMLT are also defined on the tote IST.
C. Neighboring edge switch stacks should be connected to each other via the DMLT
connection to add
resilient paths in the event of an SMLT failure.
D. Alternate the primary path of the SMLT connection Lo load balance the switch core.
Answer: B

Avaya   6102-1   6102-1   6102-1

NO.6 Avaya recommends that the Switch Fabric (SF) modules be installed in both Slot SF1
and Slot SF4.
What is the reason behind this recommendation?
A. It provides optimal load balancing between the SF modules.
B. It provides redundancy tor the bandwidth management.
C. It takes full advantage of the orthogonal midplane architecture.
D. It provides redundancy in case of a power supply failure.
E. It provides lossless SF failover.
Answer: B

Avaya dump   6102-1   6102-1인증

NO.7 Which command can be used to determine the management IPv6 address on the
Virtual Services
Platform (VSP) O000?
A. Show interfaces mgmtEthernet 1/1
B. Show ip interface vrf mgmtRouter
C. Show ipv6 interface vrf mgmtRouter
D. Show ipv6 address interface
Answer: D

Avaya인증   6102-1   6102-1   6102-1자료   6102-1 dump

NO.8 Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used by the IP Multicast router, to
learn about the
existence of host group members on their directly attached subnets.
Which statement about IGMP is true?
A. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for IP hosts broadcasting IGMP
queries and
reporting their host group memberships.
B. The IP Multicast routers get this information by broadcasting IGMP queries and listening
for IP hosts
reporting their host group memberships.
C. The IP Multicast routers get this information by recognizing the modified MAC address of a
Multicast
packet and adding that MAC address to the Multicast tree.
D. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for Multicast Servers broadcasting
IGMP
queries and listening for IP hosts reporting their host group memberships.
Answer: B

Avaya dumps   6102-1자료   6102-1자격증

NO.9 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis has the following connections:
Four 10GBaseER core connections in ports 3/4 , 3/8, 4/4, 4/8 (9024XL cards)
40 Copper 100BaseT connections for server aggregation (9048GT card)
How many Switch Fabric (SF) modules need to be installed in the roar of the chassis to
ensure that all of
the IO cards operate at full performance, even if a single SF modules fails (n + 1 SF
redundancy)?
A. Install three SFs in St modules 1, 2, 4.
B. Install four SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4.
C. Install five SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D. Install six SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Answer: D

Avaya   6102-1   6102-1인증   6102-1시험문제   6102-1

NO.10 Which types of packets will port mirroring not capture.?
A. Packets that are dropped on the ingress MAC
B. Packets that are destined for the standby CP
C. Packets that are properly forwarded through the VSP
D. Packets that have a destination address of 255.255.255.255
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: 3102
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Aura Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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NO.1 Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system
manger?
(Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. Undefined
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.4 A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been
asked to apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new
Application Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in
the Berlin location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating
Application Sequence drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the
Berlin location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application
Sequence.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

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NO.6 During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that
the
Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session
Manager but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password
is valid In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again
in Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main
site
and Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP
Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

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NO.8 Digit Conversion in Adaptation can be specified to modify "origination" type headers.
Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.9 When performing a remote backup of system Manager data the administrator is asked for a
user
name and password. Which statement best explains why a user name and password are
required?
A. The backed-up data file is encrypted. The username and password are used in encryption
process and subsequently to access the file on restoring backed up data.
B. The backed-up data is stored on a remote server using SCP. The user name and password are
used to login remote server.
C. Because System Manager Date is being exported from the server for security and
authentication purpose system Manager once again checks the administrator's credentials.
D. All System Manager Data is backed up to common storage repository setup during installation.
For system Manager to access the repository the correct user name and password must be
supplied.
Answer: B

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NO.10 After a power failure or database crash, the Postgres database may become corrupted and
the
Postgres server may not restart.
The recovery action is to clear the writer-Ahead Log (WAL) and optionally reset other control data,
using which command?
A. pg_resetxlog
B. pg_clearwal
C. pg_dump
D. service postgresq1 restart
E. service wall restart
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: 6104
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Wireless LAN Implementation Exam)
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NO.1 Which statement describes the WLAN 8180 controller AC/DC power specification?
A. It operates only on AC power: 110 - 120 VAC / 60 Hz.
B. The maximum power consumption is 190 Watts.
C. Power over Ethernet (Pot) is supported on the ports in front panel.
D. Wireless Controller (WC) 8180 does not support dual power supply.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer has deployed an Avaya WLAN 8l00 system with minimal coverage and has placed
all of the Access Points (APs) in operational mode.
Assuming that the customer has deployed no other wireless security measures, which behavior
should
their technicians expect when they enable rogue AP threat mitigation?
A. The APs will send de authentication messages to all rogue APs and their associated clients with
Basic
Service Set Identifications (BSSIDs) different from their own.
B. The APs will scan the legal channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication
messages to the rogue APs.
C. The APs will send de authentication messages to the clients associated to rogue APs operating on
the
same channel as the managed AP.
D. The APs will scan all channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication messages
to
all rogue APs and their associated clients.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A technician is replacing a failed WLAN Management System (WMS) server and wants to
import a
saved configuration onto the new server. The new Access Point (AP) license has already been
installed
on the new WMS and everything is working.
What is the best way to import a previously saved configuration?
A. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\conf and restart WMS.
B. Manually add all WC(s) in the domain, and then sync the policies from the Active Mobility
Domain
Controller (AMDC).
C. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\backup and then in WMS go
to
configuration to Database Backup and choose the file to be imported.
D. Load the backup configuration directly into MySQL.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A technician working for a multinational company is using the Captive Portal (CP) features to
localize the welcome screen that company guests see at each location.
What must be done to ensure the correct welcome screen appears at a given site?
A. Copy the correct image to the central http/https server for the Mobility Domain.
B. Customize welcome screen of CP on each Wireless Controller.
C. Set the Remote Authentication Dial in User Service (RADIUS) session-display attribute in the
Guest
group profile to return the configured value of the image file.
D. Set the local database on the wireless Controller to present the image to all unauthenticated
users.
Answer: A

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NO.5 With WLAN management System (WMS) user role as ROLE_ADMIN , which actions can be
performed?
A. Create new users, create configuration, monitor
B. Create new users, monitor
C. Create configuration, monitor
D. Create new users, create configuration
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two DHCP configuration stops must be accomplished for an Access Point (AP) to
identify a
Wireless Controller (WC) to manage it? (Choose two.)
A. The sub-option 08 with value "AVAYA AP" must he Included before other sub options.
B. The prefix "AVAYA-AP" must be included before the list of IP addresses.
C. The IP address of the Active Mobility Domain Controller (AMDC) and Backup Mobility Domain
Controllers (BMDC) must be provided in the 43 field. The AMDC will ensure the AP gets assigned to
the
correct WC.
D. The IP address of any WC in the domain may be provided in the option 43 field. APs will get
assigned
to the correct WC even if it isn t the same IP address as listed in the option 43 field.
E. If the AP needs to be managed by a particular WC, the IP address of that specific controller in the
option 43 field must be specified.
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 A technician is performing an initial configuration on a Wireless Controller (WC).
Which command will accurately set the IP address to 10.127.4S.20 with a 24 bit network mask on a
network with no default gateway.?
A. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway none
B. ip address 10.127.45.20.255.255.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip address 10.127.45.20 255.255.255.0 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
D. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

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NO.8 A client calls and says that an employee disconnected his laptop docking station and
connected a
wireless router to the LAN using the station's Ethernet cable, and the 8100 system did not detect
the
presence of this unmanaged Access Point (AP). The client has globally enabled RF scanning.
Which two statements describe why the fit no system is behaving in this manner? (Choose two.)
A. The AP deployment is too sparse to allow successful triangulation on the router.
B. The outer is successfully mimicking a known managed AP.
C. The APs are operating at maximum load.
D. The deployment does not include WIDS/WIPS APs.
E. The APs are not configured to scan all channels.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Which statement describes the relationships between AP profile, radio profiles, and network
profiles?
A. Radio profiles refer to AP profile, which in turn refer to network profiles.
B. The AP profile refer to AP profiles for radio specific settings and network profiles for SSID specific
settings.
C. Network profiles refer to AP profiles for mapping SSIDs to APs, and AP profiles refer to radio
profiles
for radio specific settings.
D. The three are linked together in the configuration by mobility profiles which logically map them
to each
other.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two DHCP options are required for a Wireless LAN client? (Choose two)
A. DHCP option 3 - Router (Default Gateway)
B. DHCP option 6 - DNS Server D C) DHCP option 12 - Host Name
C. DHCP option 15 - DNS name
D. DHCP option 43 - Vendor specified option for switch discovery
Answer: A,D

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시험 번호/코드: 3306
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Contact Recording and Avaya Quality Monitoring Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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NO.1 A technician is configuring the Avaya Contact Recording to work in a CS1000 environment with
AST recording.
Which entry must be added in the Avaya Contact Recording properties file for this configuration to
work correctly?
A. cc.v6=false
B. aacc.v6=false
C. cc.v6=true
D. aacc.v6=true
Answer: C

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NO.2 When an Avaya Contact Recording server is installed with more than one Network Interface
Card
(NIC), what should be set to indicate which NIC to use for Audio and screen content streams?
A. General Setup > Recorder > Replay Server(s)
B. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
C. General Setup > Recorder > IP address on this server to use for recordings
D. General Setup > Recorder URL(s) of external port(s) to connect to
Answer: C

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NO.3 The license Avaya Contact Recording a three digit code is needed. What is this code called,
and
where can it be found?
A. Avaya CR License Code; Recorder Status > Ports
B. License Generation key; System > License
C. Avaya CR License Code; System > License
D. License Generation key; generation Setup > Recorder
Answer: B

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NO.4 In the enterprise Reporting Webpage, which two troubleshooting tests are available under ETL
tasks?
A. Test Quality Monitoring Connection and Test Apache Tomcat Connection
B. Test Extract and Test Quality Monitoring Connection
C. Test Extract and Test Reporter Gateway
D. Test File Locations and Test Database Connection
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your customer is asking questions about the reliability of their new Avaya Contact Recording
system. They have only one physical recorder.
As far as reliability is concerned, which two options would be available for your customer?
(Choose two)
A. The operating system and call database should be RAID 1 and the recording storage area
should be RAID 5
B. Use a fault tolerant Storage Area Network (SAN)
C. Record calls directly to a network attached storage (NAS)
D. Record calls directly to a tape drive
E. Use any backup software to back up the system daily
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 For an Avaya Quality Monitoring Server, which three items should be backed up? (Choose
three)
A. eCorder directory
B. Avaya Quality Monitoring Database
C. Avaya Quality Monitoring Windows Register key
D. postgressql directory
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 What are two types of reports which can be generated using Enterprise Reporting? (Choose
two)
A. Calibration Reports
B. Call by Call Reports
C. Real Time Reports
D. Graphical Reports
E. Trending Reports
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 A customer has installed two Network Interface Cards (NICs) on an Avaya Contact Recording
server, and they are unable to capture Real-time Transport protocol (RTP) packets.
What are three possible reasons they are encountering this problem? (Choose three)
A. The wrong NIC has been selected to use for RTP .
B. Both NICs belong to the same subnet, and are on a different subnet than CLAN/H323, and AES
IP address defined.
C. There is no network path between both NICs and the recorded IP phones.
D. There is no network path between the Avaya Aura® Communication Manager Media resources
and the NIC on the Avaya Contact Recording server to use for RTP .
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Which three directories should be excluded from anti-virus software running on the Avaya
Quality
Monitoring Server? (Choose three)
A. PostgresSQL directory
B. QM directory
C. Tomcat directory
D. SQL Server Files and directories
E. Program Files directory
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 You are planning to install an Avaya Contact Recorder on customer site that is using an Avaya
Communication Manager as a PBX.
Which two devices should reachable by the Contact Recorder? (Choose two)
A. Avaya Session Manager
B. Avaya Application Enablement Server
C. Avaya IP Telephones
D. Avaya Communication Manager Gateway
Answer: B,D

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시험 번호/코드: 132-S-900-7
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya IP Telephony Design Elective Exam)
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NO.1 An Avaya customer with a large contact center is IP enabling their S87xx and will allow 25
users to work from home via IP Agent in the Telecommuter mode.
What is the minimum hardware required in the S87xx to provide this application?
A. one CLAN board only
B. one Media Processor board only
C. one CLAN and one Media Processor board
D. no hardware is required, only software.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has two sites connected over a 512k serial WAN link. There are 40 employees at
the main site and 20 employees at the remote site. Since the server bank and all trunks terminate at
the main location, the customer has concerns about the bandwidth over the WAN link. They
request a network assessment.
Which two design considerations are pertinent to the bandwidth on the WAN link? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN capable Ethernet switch
B. telecommuters using IP Softphone to access network resources
C. number of voice calls going through the WAN link during peak time
D. graphic-based programs used on the network between the two sites
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 You are developing IP Telephony bandwidth requirements for WAN traffic between two S87xx
sites. The client estimates that simultaneous non-IP Telephony traffic will occupy 1.5 Mbps. In
addition, they estimate that using G.729, 55 simultaneous IP calls need to be provided access to the
WAN link.
What estimated bandwidth will the IP Telephony traffic add to the WAN traffic?
A. 1.5 Mbps
B. 275 Kbps
C. 1650 Kbps
D. 4675 Kbps
Answer: C

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NO.4 Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP telephony endpoints are simultaneously connected to 10 digital
sets, 10 IP sets, and 5 CO trunks.
How many DSPs are in use if G.711 is incorporated?
A. 15
B. 25
C. 30
D. 50
Answer: A

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NO.5 What needs to be considered at an Enterprise Survivability Server (ESS) location when
implementing an agent recording solution?
A. H.323 trunks
B. locally sourced announcements
C. Application Enablement Services (AES)
D. Separation of Bearer and Signaling (SBS)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two recommendations of a network assessment allow Avaya IP phones to boot up
properly with dynamic addressing? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP Site Specific Option 167 being set up correctly
B. DHCP Site Specific Option 176 being set up correctly
C. using Fast Spanning Tree Protocol (FSTP) at the port level
D. turning off Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at the switch level
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 The customer plans to add remote IP users when they implement VoIP on their network.
What information about the customer's data network do you need to know to verify that remote
users can be supported? (Choose three.)
A. codec administration
B. network region for each remote user
C. applications the remote user will be using
D. bandwidth the remote user will have access to
E. the average round trip between the VPN users and the voice network
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 Which of the following does a typical Cisco design include?
A. Right to Use for Call Manager
B. Right to Use for Growth
C. Right to Use for Phones
D. Right to Use for Redundancy
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your client is planning to implement IP Telephony on their recently installed S8500. y will have
local IP sets and IP connected remote users (IP Softphone). In addition, they need connectivity to a
limited-bandwidth WAN between headquarters and their manufacturing plant. The client is
interested in setting up network regions.
What are three reasons to consider network regions in your overall design? (Choose three.)
A. to associate parameters such as codecs and locations to groups of IP endpoints
B. to provide IP endpoints certain mandatory use of resources that belong in the same region as the
endpoint
C. to provide IP endpoints certain preference to use resources that belong in the same region as the
endpoint
D. to associate IP endpoints with a type of signaling resource (CLANS) to load balance registration
among the CLANS in multiple regions
E. to associate IP endpoints with a type of signaling resource (CLANS) to load balance registration
among the CLANS in the same region
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. y are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. overvoltage
B. overheating
C. undervoltage
D. high humidity
Answer: A,B

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Q&A: 80 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Your user groups have different functional needs and your managers would rather employ a more
complicated user group structure than create additional folder levels. What approach should you use to
create a content plan that combines logical report organization and functional user access levels?
A.Use the logical-functional group method.
B.Grant each user advanced rights to each object.
C.Use the functional-folder method.
D.Create a logical content plan.
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which steps should you follow in the Central Management Console (CMC) in order to create a new
Profile that will enable you to use a Publication to distribute personalized information to each of your store
managers? (Select the best option.)
A.Select the Publication object, click on the Schedule tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
B.Select the Publication object, click on the Source tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
C.Select the Publication object, click on the Profiles tab and click New Profile.
D.Select the Profiles object, click New Profile.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which two actions does BusinessObjects Enterprise take when an instance is removed from the system?
(Choose two.)
A.Deletes the instance file from the Output File Repository Server
B.Deletes the record of the instance from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.Keeps the instance file in the Output File Repository Server
D.Keeps a record of the instance in the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
Answer:A B

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NO.4 Which two statements are true when you make changes to the report properties of a published Crystal
Report object using the Central Management Console (CMC)? (Choose two.)
A.The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is modified.
B.The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is not modified.
C.The changes are written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
D.The changes are not written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
Answer:B C

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NO.5 Which statement describes how corporate categories operate as a component of a content and
management plan for your BusinessObjects Enterprise system?
A.Categories must be set up to reflect each user's personal requirements.
B.Copies of objects must be added to each category where they are included.
C.Users have rights to access each object in a category based on its actual folder location.
D.Access rights to objects in categories must be set for each user.
Answer:C

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NO.6 Assume you are using InfoView and need to locate a specific Web Intelligence report, but you cannot
remember its name. There are 15 Web Intelligence reports in the system and you have access to all
root-level folders. What would be the best way to locate the report?
A.Browse the folders and categories
B.Filter
C.Report off the CMS database
D.Use the Advanced feature of the Search function
Answer:D

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NO.7 Select two true statements from below. (Choose two.)
A.You cannot copy Calendar objects in CMC > Calendars area of administration.
B.You can create your own Calendars in BusinessObjects Enterprise; you have to use the pre-build
business calendars only.
C.You can schedule Web Intelligence documents based on an existing calendar.
D.Calendars can be created in InfoView.
Answer:B C

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NO.8 Tasha belongs to the Sales Support group. This group was explicitly denied the View Object right on the
Sales folder. Tasha needs to view objects in the Reports sub-folder of the Sales folder. What change
should you make?
A.Change the Sales Support group's access rights on the Sales folder to View.
B.Change Tasha's access rights to View.
C.Explicitly grant Full Control to Tasha.
D.Explicitly grant the View Object right to the Sales Support group which disables inheritance.
Answer:A

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NO.9 Select two true statements about Scheduling Publications from below. (Choose two.)
A.You can schedule Publication that contains both Desktop Intelligence and Web Intelligence documents.
B.You cannot schedule Publication on a recurring basis.
C.You can test Publication before scheduling.
D.Scheduling Publications is an example of single-pass refresh bursting as oppose to multi-pass report
bursting.
Answer:C D

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NO.10 Where does the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure store a successful Web Intelligence
document instance?
A.The Output File Repository Server (FRS)
B.The Web Intelligence Report Server
C.The Web Intelligence Job Server
D.The Output Application Server (OAS)
Answer:A

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NO.11 What options do users have for viewing reports in the Central Management Console (CMC)?
A.They can choose any viewer that is available in the CMC preferences.
B.They can view reports only with the CMC viewer.
C.They cannot view reports in the CMC, only administer the content.
D.They can view reports only with the DHTML viewers.
Answer:A

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NO.12 A user who has always scheduled objects for the Marketing department is leaving your company.
Which method should you use in the Central Management Console (CMC) to ensure that all recurring
instances owned by this user remain in effect but become owned by the Administrator?
A.Disable the departing user then click on the Transfer recurring instances to button and select the
Administrator. Click OK.
B.Delete the departing user; all recurring instances automatically transfer to the Administrator.
C.Open each recurring instance on the object's History tab then click on Schedule for and select
Administrator. Ensure that the instance will use the same recurrence pattern and parameter values.
Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
D.Download details of all the instances then log on to the CMC as Administrator and schedule them using
the same recurrence patterns and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have
been duplicated.
Answer:B

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NO.13 Which two statements are true regarding user access rights to a given object in BusinessObjects
Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Explicitly denied user access overrides all accumulated rights.
B.Objects inherit security from parent folders.
C.Global rights override all other rights.
D.Users inherit rights from the default group to which they belong.
Answer:A B

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NO.14 Which statement describes the role of BusinessObjects Enterprise within the Business Objects
Business Intelligence (BI) suite of products?
A.Allows you to analyze and interact with data from both relational and OLAP data sources.
B.Provides you with an open, scalable platform that supports all of your BI tools and applications.
C.Provides you with a process for accessing data, formatting it and delivering it as information to various
users.
D.Allows you to integrate, transform and deliver enterprise data from any source.
Answer:B

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NO.15 The InfoView is mostly used for which of the following tasks:
A.Mostly for administering content
B.Exclusively for viewing reports
C.Viewing information about reports (Encyclopedia and Discussions)
D.Accessing information and some limited content administration
Answer:D

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NO.16 You want department administrators to perform some basic administrative tasks that require them to
be able to access the Central Management Console (CMC). How will you give the department
administrators the right to be able to grant access to the CMC to other administrators in their own
departments?
A.In the Organize Objects area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator
group(s) and grant them the right to "Edit this object".
B.In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the
department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Full control".
C.In the Manage Settings area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator
group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this object".
D.In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the
department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this object".
Answer:D

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NO.17 Which three BusinessObjects Enterprise servers interact directly with the databases that contain report
data? (Choose three.)
A.Desktop Intelligence Job Server
B.Crystal Reports Job Server
C.Crystal Reports Page Server
D.Web Intelligence Job Server
Answer:A B C

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NO.18 What steps should you follow to make Report A run automatically every day upon the successful
completion of Report B?
A.Working in InfoView, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events
and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A
to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to wait for window.
B.Working in the Central Management Console, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B
to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion
window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events
to wait for window.
C.Working in the Central Management Console, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run
daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs
successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
D.Working in InfoView, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add
the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the
custom event in the Central Management Console.
Answer:B

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NO.19 How do you disable anonymous access in BusinessObjects Enterprise?
A.Within InfoView uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
B.Within Central Management Console (CMC) disable Guest account.
C.Within Central Configuration Manager (CCM) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
D.Within Central Management Console (CMC) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
Answer:B

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NO.20 Once you grant the right to an application value (e.g. Print Documents set to Grant) to a user/group on
a specific application (e.g. Desktop Intelligence), you will still be able to grant that right (e.g. print) to one
Desktop Intelligence document but not the other Desktop Intelligence document.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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시험 번호/코드: QAW1301
시험 이름: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Business Objects Web)
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Q&A: 58 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Which DaysBetween() function syntax should you use to calculate the number of years since
your
birth, assuming the date object is Birth_date?
A. =DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate ) / 365.25
B. =DaysBetween([Birth_date] , CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
C. =DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
D. =DaysBetween(CurrentDate() ; [Birth_date] ) / 365.25
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are using calculation contexts within an If() function. Which two are valid contexts for use
in
an If() function? (Choose two.)
A. In Cell
B. In Row
C. In Block
D. In Report
Answer: C, D

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NO.3 You want to compare the sales revenue performance of the top 20% of your customers to the
average of all of your customers. You decide to apply a rank on the table that shows customers
and revenue and create a variable to show the average revenue for all customers. Which function
should you use in the variable?
A. NoFilter()
B. NoRank()
C. AverageAll()
D. IgnoreFilter()
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements are true of grouping sets when using smart measures? (Choose two.)
A. It is a set of dimensions that generates a result for a measure.
B. It is a set of measures that generates a result for a dimension.
C. The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that dimension that are
included in the report.
D. The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that measure that are
included in the report.
Answer: A, D

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NO.5 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with data and want to use data tracking. The
Data
Tracking button is however grayed out. Which action should you take to enable formatting of the
tracked data?
A. Contact the system administrator.
B. Edit the document in tracking mode.
C. Open the document in tracking mode.
D. Enable data tracking in the Document Properties.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: 60-DSFA680
시험 이름: Altiris (Altiris Deployment Solution Foundation 6.8)
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NO.1 You can use _____ to ensure that your PXE servers are servicing the correct managed computers.
A. IP blocking
B. Conditions
C. MAC filtering
D. NetBIOS name recognition
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which Deployment Console method lets you work with software virtualization layers?
A. using a Deployment job
B. selecting Tools > Software Virtualization
C. right-clicking on a computer and selecting Software Virtualization > Manage Layers
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A. %
B. #
C. $
D. *
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A. SIDgenerator
B. SetupCapture
C. Sysprep
D. ImageExplorer
E. SIDconfig
Answer: C

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NO.7 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server.
Which statement is now true?
A. moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B. images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C. this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D. the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
Answer: B

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NO.8 Deployment Solution's Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A. Java
B. DirectX
C. ActiveX
D. .NET framework
E. Pre-boot automation operating systems
F. SQL
Answer: DF

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NO.9 When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A. Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.
B. If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
immediately.
C. A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D. Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
Answer: C

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NO.10 When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension _____?
A. cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B. must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C. cannot be converted to .IMG files
D. can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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NO.12 How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A. layers can be imported to a managed computer
B. layers can be created
C. the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D. the content of a layer can be modified
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Which Altiris utility creates the necessary media to run the Initial Deployment job from a CD?
A. ImageExplorer
B. RapiDeploy
C. PXE Configuration Utility
D. Initial Deployment Configuration Utility
E. Boot Disk Creator
Answer: E

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NO.14 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.15 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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NO.16 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.17 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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NO.18 You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start.
What is the probable cause?
A. the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B. Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C. the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D. a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
Answer: A

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NO.19 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

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NO.20 You are using the Deployment Console's New Job Wizard to migrate a computer's personality from
one computer to different computer.
What happens to the names of these two computers during this process?
A. The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B. The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C. The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
manually.
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: 050-V710-SESECURID
시험 이름: RSA (CSE RSA SecurID 7.1)
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NO.1 To activate a Group on an Agent Host in another RSA ACE/Server Realm, you would
A. enable External Authorization.
B. edit the Realm Secret of the Agent Host.
C. mark the Agent Host "Open to All Locally Known Users".
D. duplicate the Agent Host record in the Group's home Realm.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Offline Authentication feature is intended to allow
A. the capability for a user to temporarily disable the Agent software while the user is working
offline.
B. an RSA SecurID authentication to be processed by a Replica server when the Primary server
is offline.
C. a user to complete an RSA SecurID authentication through the local Agent if the local
Agent computer is offline.
D. several users to use a single RSA SecurID token so that they can share another user's
computer if their own computer is offline.
Answer: C

RSA dumps   050-V710-SESECURID dump   050-V710-SESECURID

NO.3 Which of the following is NOT a component of the technology used within an RSA SecurID
token?
A. algorithm B.
private key C.
time source D.
seed record
Answer: B

RSA dump   050-V710-SESECURID   050-V710-SESECURID   050-V710-SESECURID

NO.4 In a Primary/Replica environment, administrative changes can be made only on a server in the
Primary instance.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

RSA dumps   050-V710-SESECURID인증   050-V710-SESECURID

NO.5 In Authentication Manager version 7.1 terminology, a "Server Node" is used to
A. Replicate the database in either a Primary or Replica instance cluster.
B. Gather and re-direct authentication requests from Agents to an available server.
C. Provide a stand-alone database available to either a Primary or Replica instance.
D. Provide additional authentication services in either a Primary or Replica instance cluster.
Answer: D

RSA덤프   050-V710-SESECURID기출문제   050-V710-SESECURID   050-V710-SESECURID   050-V710-SESECURID   050-V710-SESECURID시험문제

NO.6 Enabling the system parameter option "Store time of last login in token records"
A. increases authentication performance.
B. is required in order for Lock Manager to prevent replay attacks.
C. is required for accurate "Last Login" information in a Token Report.
D. only applies if the Agent Host is using the RSA ACE/Agent 5.0 Authentication Protocol.
Answer: C

RSA   050-V710-SESECURID   050-V710-SESECURID덤프   050-V710-SESECURID인증

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시험자료링크: http://www.itexamdump.com/050-V710-SESECURID.html